REFERENCE LIST FOR THE ORAL AND WRITTEN

BOARD EXAMINATION

ENDODONTICS:

1. COHEN’S PATHWAYS OF THE PULP, 10th ed., K. Hargreaves, S. Cohen;

St Louis: Mosby Elsevier, 2011.

2. PATHWAYS OF THE PULP, 9th ed., S. Cohen, K. Hargreaves;

St Louis: Mosby Elsevier, 2006.

3. ENDODONTIC THERAPY, 5th ed., F. WEINE; St Louis: Mosby, 1996.

4. PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF ENDODONTICS, 2nd ed., R. Walton, M.

Torabinejad; Philadelphia: Saunders, 1996.

5. ENDODONTICS, 4th ed. J. Ingle, L. Bakland; Baltimore: Williams & Wilkins,

1994.

6. TEXTBOOK AND COLOR ATLAS OF TRAUMATIC INJURIES TO THE

TEETH, 3rd ed., J. Andreasen, F. Andreasen; St Louis: Mosby, 1994.

REMOVABLE PROSTHODONTICS:

1. MCCRACKEN'S REMOVABLE PARTIAL PROSTHODONTICS, 11th ed.,

A. Carr, G. McGivney, D. Brown; St Louis: Mosby Elsevier, 2005.

2. AN ATLAS OF REMOVABLE PARTIAL DENTURE DESIGN, R.

Stratton, F. Wiebelt; Chicago: Quintessence, 1988.

3. PROSTHODONTIC TREATMENT FOR EDENTULOUS PATIENTS, 12th

ed., G. Zarb, C.Bolender; St. Louis: Mosby, 2004.

4. REMOVABLE PARTIAL DENTURE DESIGN, Outline Syllabus, 5th ed.,

A. Krol, T. Jacobson, F. Finzen; San Rafael: Indent, 1999.

FIXED PROSTHODONTICS:

1. CONTEMPORARY FIXED PROSTHODONTICS, 4th ed., S. Rosenstiel, M.

Land, J. Fujimoto; St. Louis: Mosby Elsevier, 2006.

2. FUNDAMENTALS OF FIXED PROSTHODONTICS, 3rd ed., H. Shillingburg,

et al; Chicago: Quintessence, 1997.

3. THEORY AND PRACTICE OF FIXED PROSTHODONTICS, 7th ed., S.

Tylman; St Louis: Mosby, 1978.

4. EVALUATION, DIAGNOSIS, AND TREATMENT OF OCCLUSAL

PROBLEMS, 2nd ed., P. Dawson; St Louis: Mosby, 1989.

5. OCCLUSION, 4th ed., M. Ash, S. Ramfjord; Philadelphia: Saunders, 1995.

6. THE PROSTHODONTIC CONCEPT OF CROWN-TO-ROOT RATIO: A

REVIEW OF THE LITERATURE, Y. Grossmann, et al.; J Pros. Dent.,

2005, 93.

7. ANNUAL REVIEW OF SELECTED DENTAL LITERATURE, Allen E., et

al.; J Pros Dent, 2004, 92.

8. EVALUATION OF THE ACCURACY OF THREE TECHNIQUES USED

FOR MULTIPLE IMPLANT ABUTMENT IMPRESSIONS, P. Vigolo, et al.; J

Pros Dent, 2003, 89.

9. TOOTH PREPARATION FOR COMPLETE CROWNS: AN ART FORM

BASED ON SCIENTIFIC PRINCIPLES, C. Goodacre, et al.; J Pros Dent., 2001,

85.

10. A REVIEW OF THE MANAGEMENT OF ENDODONTICALLY TREATED

TEETH, W. Cheung; JADA, 2005, 136:611-619.

IMPLANTOLOGY:

1. CONTEMPORARY IMPLANT DENTISTRY, 3rd ed., C. Misch; St. Louis:

Mosby Elsevier, 2008.

2. THE IMPLANT-SUPPORTED OVERDENTURE AS AN ALTERNATIVE

TO THE COMPLETE MANDIBULAR DENTURE, J. Doundoulakis, et al;

JADA: 2003.

3. RISK FACTORS IN IMPLANT DENTISTRY. Renourd; Chicago:

Quintessence, 1999.

4. EVALUATION OF THE ACCURACY OF THREE TECHNIQUES USED

FOR MULTIPLE IMPLANT ABUTMENT IMPRESSIONS, P. Vigolo; J

Pros Dent., 2003, 89.

5. TWO-PIECE IMPLANTS WITH TURNED VERSUS MICROTEXTURED

COLLARS, J. Cosyn, et al.; J Periodontol, Sept, 2007, 78.

6. CROSS INFECTION FROM PERIODONTITIS SITES TO FAILING

IMPLANT SITES IN THE SAME MOUTH, Gouvoussis & Sindhusahe;

International Journal of Oral and Maxillofacial Implants, 1997, 12.

7. PRACTICAL APPLICATION OF ANATOMY FOR THE DENTAL

IMPLANT SURGEON, G. Greenstein, J. Cavallaro, D. Tarnow; J Periodontol,

2008, 79(10)

8. IMPLANT SURFACE TREATMENT USING BIOMIMETIC AGENTS, G.

Avila, et al; Implant Dentistry, 2009, 18(1).

9. INFLUENCE OF THE 3-D BONE-TO-IMPLANT RELATIONSHIP ON

ESTHETICS, U. Grunder, et al; Int J Periodontics Restorative Dent. 2005:25(2).

10. REVERSE TORQUE FAILURE OF SCREW-SHAPED IMPLANTS IN

BABOONS – BASELINE DATE FOR ABUTMENT TORQUE APPLICATION,

A. Carr, et al.; Int J Oral Maxillofacial Implants, 1995:10(2).

11. IMMEDIATE PLACEMENT OF IMPLANTS INTO EXTRACTION

SOCKETS: RATIONALE, OUTCOMES, TECHNIQUES, S. Froum; Alpha

Omegan; 2005: 98(2).

12. THE INFLUENCE OF BONE THICKNESS ON FACIAL MARGINAL

BONE RESPONSE: STAGE 1 PLACEMENT THROUGH STAGE 2

UNCOVERING, J. Spray, et al.; Ann Periodontol., 2000:5.

ORAL SURGERY:

1. CONTEMPORARY ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY, 5th ed.,

James R. Hupp; et al.; St Louis: Mosby, 2008.

2. HANDBOOK OF LOCAL ANESTHESIA. 5th ed., S. Malamed; St Louis:

Mosby, 2004.

3. ORAL RADIOLOGY: PRINCIPLES and INTERPRETATION, 6th ed., S.

White, M. Pharoah; St Louis: Mosby Elsevier, 2009.

ORTHODONTICS / PEDODONTICS / PUBLIC HEALTH:

1. PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY: INFANCY THROUGH ADOLESCENCE, 4th ed.,

J. Pinkham, et al.; Philadelphia: Elsevier Saunders, 2005.

2. DENTISTRY FOR THE CHILD AND ADOLESCENT, 8th ed., R. McDonald,

et al; St Louis: Mosby, 2004.

3. CONTEMPORARY ORTHODONTICS, 4th ed., W. Proffit, et al.; St Louis:

Mosby, 2007.

4. Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team

4th ed., Miller and Palenik, 2009.

OPERATIVE DENTISTRY / DENTAL MATERIALS:

1. Roberson, et al. Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 5th ed.,

St Louis: Mosby, 2006.

2. Summit, J., et al. Fundamentals of Operative Dentistry: A Contemporary

Approach, 3rd Ed., Chicago: Quint., 2006.

3. Dawson, P. Functional Occlusion: From TMJ to Smile Design, St. Louis:

Mosby, 2007.

4. Gurel, G., The Science and Art of Porcelain Laminate Veneers, Chicago:

Quint., 2003.

5. Powers, J. and Sakaguchi, R. Craig’s Restorative Dental Materials, 12th ed.,

St Louis: Mosby, 2006.

6. Anusavice, K. Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials, 11th ed., St. Louis:

Saunders, 2003.

ORAL MEDICINE/ORAL PATHOLOGY:

1. ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL PATHOLOGY, 3rd ed., B. Neville, D.

Damm, Allen, Bouquet; St Louis: Saunders, 2009.

2. Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 7th ed., J. Little,

Falace, Miller, Rhodus; St Louis: Mosby Elsevier, 2008.

3. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 2nd ed., Neville, et al; Philadelphia: WB

Saunders, 2002.

4. Mosby’s Dental Drug Reference 8th ed.; 2007.

5. Oral Pathology: Clinical Pathologic Correlations, 5th ed., Regezi; WB Saunders,

2008.

6. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, 5th ed., Okeson;

St Louis: Mosby, 2003.

7. Prevention of infective endocarditis: Guidelines from the American Heart

Association; Wilson, et al; JADA, Vol. 139, Suppl_1, 3S-24S, © 2008 American

Dental Association.

PERIODONTICS:

1. CARRANZA’S CLINICAL PERIODONTOLOGY, 10th ed., M. Newman. et

al. Philadelphia: WB Saunders, 2006.

2. PERIODONTICS: MEDICINE, SURGERY and IMPLANTS, L. Rose, et al; St

Louis: Mosby, 2004.

3. CARRANZA’S CLINICAL PERIODONTOLOGY, 9th ed., M. Newman. et al.

Philadelphia: WB Saunders, 2002.

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Oral Oncology

                           Oral Oncology

            Oral Management of the Oncology

                       Patient: Introduction  

                        Daniel E. Jolly, DDS, FAAHD, FACD

                             Professor of Clinical Dentistry and Director, General Practice Residency

                                  The Ohio State University College of Dentistry & Medical Center

..........................................................................................................................................................

                 Purpose of this Seminar Series

• Treatment for the cancer patient receiving:

– Chemotherapy

– Radiation therapy

• NOT to diagnosis oral cancer

.............................................................................

                Topic Outline

􀀹Head and Neck Cancer at The Ohio

State University

􀀹Chemotherapy

􀀹Radiation Therapy

􀀹Case Studies

􀀹Patient Relations – Spiritual concepts

..........................................................................

Diagnosis

􀀹Attention to detail of oral

examination

􀀹Comprehensive oral exam on a

regular basis

􀀹Intraoral exam

􀀹Extraoral exam

............................................................

Lesions

􀀹Know what is normal

􀀹Identify abnormalities

􀀹Characterize abnormalities

􀀹Color

􀀹Size

􀀹Texture

􀀹Duration

...............................................................

Oral malignant lesions

􀀹Usually not painful

􀀹Usually long lasting

􀀹Do not resolve with conservative

therapy

􀀹Antibiotics

􀀹Topical medications

...................................................................

Differential diagnosis

􀀹Infectious process

􀀹Apthous ulcerations

􀀹Herpes infections

􀀹Benign growths

􀀹Traumatic lesions

...................................................................

Lesion Types

􀀹Red = more potential for malignancy

􀀹Ulcerated

􀀹Indurated

􀀹Firm, fixed, non-mobile

􀀹White = less malignant potential

􀀹Elevated = less malignant potential

....................................................................

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ORAL MEDICINE FINAL EXAM\EN

ORAL MEDICINE FINAL EXAM\EN

Choose the most appropriate answer:
1. Which of these infection may have a role in the etiology of oral cancer:
a. Herpes simplex infection.
b. Human papillomavirus infection.
c. Candidal infection.
d. Syphilitic infection.
e. All of above.
f. A+B only.

2. All of these could be considered as cause of desquamative gingivitis except:
a. pemphigiod.
b. Lichen planus.
c. Pemphigus.
d. Plasma cell gingivitis (allergic gingivitis).
e. Non of above.

3. The blister in angina bullosa haeorrhagica heal completely within :
a. 1 week.
b. 3 weeks.
c. 1 month.
d. 2 months.
e. 3 months.

4. The worst side effect of radiation therapy for treatment of oral cancer :

a. Radiation caries.
b. Degeneration of tooth pulp.
c. Xerostomia .
d. Osteoradionecrosis .





5. Asymptomatic, speckled red and white patch of the tongue was found in an elderly man who admitted to heavy alcohol and tobacco use. The patient was aware of the lesion’s presence but was uncertain of the duration. The lesion was firm to palpation and rough in texture. The most likely diagnosis of this lesion is :
a. Traumatic ulcer.
b. Candidiasis .
c. Squamous cell Carcinoma.
d. Lichen planus.
e. Systemic lupus erythromatous .

6. Bilateral linear white plaque was discovered on buccal mucosa in a 50 year-old woman during a routine dental examination. The patient claims she has been under a lot of stress lately because of family problems. The plaques are asymptomatic. The plaques are asymptomatic and do not rub off. The most likely diagnosis is :
a. Lupus erythromatous .
b. Lichen planus .
c. Candidiasis .
d. Frictional Keratosis .
e. Leukoplakia .

7. A 45-ear old woman appears at the dental clinic with this pink smooth-surfaced papule. It is 7mm in diameter, firm, and nonfluctuant. This lesion has been present for several years and has slowly increased in size:
a. Fibroepithelial polyp.
b. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma.
c. Pyogenic granuloma
d. Lipoma
e. Non of above

8. The best treatment for verrucous carcinoma is:
a. Radiation therapy.
b. Chemo therapy.
c. Surgical excision.
d. All of above.
e. None of above.



9. Blood crusted lips could be considered as orofacial manifestation of:
a. Lichen planus.
b. Erythema multiform.
c. Pemphigoid.
d. Epidermolysis bullosa.
e. Angina bullosa haemorrhagica.


10. A 40-year old man presents to the dental clinic with rapid appearance of a blood filled blister & lesion was found in the soft palate. Patient complains of some discomfort at that area. The most likely diagnosis for this condition is:
a. pemphigus.
b. Erythema multiform.
c. Angina bullosa haemorrhagica.
d. Epidermolysis bullosa.
e. IgA dermatitis.

11. Which of these will not be used in the mangement of leukoplakia?
a. Biopsy and histological examination.
a. Topical application of bleomycine.
b. Topical steroid therapy.
c. Laser therapy.
d. Close follow up is mandatory.

12. The usual cause of infectious mononucleosise: a. Cytomegaly virus.
b. Epstein – Barr virus.
c. Coxsackie virus.
d. Human papilloma virus.
e. None of above.

13. Which type of lichen planus is most likely to be symptomatic and require treatment?
a. reticular.
b. papular.
c. plaque.
d. erosive.
e. atrophic.

14. Which of these drugs have been shown induce lichenoid lesions?
a. Non-steriodal anti-inflammatory drugs.
b. Beta-blockers.
c. Sulphonamides.
d. Antimalarials.
e. All of above.
f. a and b only

15. All of these could be considered as routine assessment of jaw function except:
a. Palpation of the TMJ.
b. Determination of maximal opening.
c. Observation for lateral deviation of the mandible during opening.
d. Palpation of the midline tissue including larynx, trachea, thyroid gland and demonstrate any lateral deviation in the position of the larynx.
e. Palpation to identify tenderness of the muscles of mastication.

16. Which of the following disease shows autoantibodies against intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium?

a. Bullous pemphigoid .
b. Erythema multiform.
c. Pemphigus vulgaris.
d. Dermatitis herpetiformis.
e. Benign mucous membrane.





17. Target lesions are characteristically seen in:
a. Lichen planus.
b. Epidermylosis bullosa.
c. Pemphigus.
d. Steven Johnson syndrome.
e. Behcets syndrome.


18. Which of these statements are not true about oral cancer? a. Early cancers appear as white or red patches or shallow ulcers and are painless.
b. Later carcinomas appear as ulcers with prominent rolled edges and induration and become painful.
c. Spread is by direct invasion of surrounding tissues and by lymphatic ****stasis.
d. Submental and deep cervical nodes are most frequently involved by ****stasis.
e. Non of above.

19. A patient presents with mild fever, sore throat and ulceration on tonsils, posterior pharyngeal wall and soft palate. Most likely diagnosis is: a. Herpangina .
b. Herpetic gingivostomatitis.
c. Recurrent aphthous major.
d. Recurrent aphthous minor.
e. Non of above.


20. Which of the following is the most common precipitating agent for
occurrence of erythema multiform? a. Amalgam restoration.
b. Stress.
c. Herpes simplex
d. Hypoglycaemic
e. Beta-blockers.




21. Basement membrane zone antibodies seen in immunofluorescent
studies of pemphigoid. Most frequently belong to which of the following group of antibodies:
a. Ig M
b. Ig G
c. Ig E
d. C 4
e. All of above.

22. Oral site where leukoplakia has maximum malignant potential is:

a. Buccal mucosa
b. Floor of the mouth
c. Palate
d. Retromolar pad area
e. Gingiva

23. After clinical and histological examination of a case of carcinoma of tongue, the tumor is assigned T2N2M0 GRADE. It signifies:
a. Tumor less than 2 cm in diameter with homolateral lymph node involvement without evidence of ****stasis.
b. Tumor 2-4 cm in diameter with clinically palpable bilateral lymph nodes with evidence of ****stasis.
c. Tumor greater than 4 cm in diameter with clinically palpable bilateral lymph nodes without evidence of ****stasis
d. Tumor 2-4 cm in diameter with clinically palpable bilateral lymph nodes without evidence of ****stasis.


24. Most significant factor affecting prognosis in patients of intraoral carcinoma is:
a. Site of lesion
b. Size of lesion
c. Presence or absence of ****stasis
d. Ulceration

25. Multiple basal cell carcinoma of skin may be a feature of
a. Gardner syndrome
b. Acanthosis nigricans
c. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
d. Ectodermal dysplasia
e. All of above




26. Hereditary hemorarhageic telengiectasia is also known as:
a. Sturge-Weber disease
b. Rendu-Osler-Weber disease
c. Port-wine stain
d. Gardner sundrome
e. Angina bullosa hemoragica

27. Which of the following lesions has best prognosis?
a) squamous cell carcinoma of pharynx
b) squamous cell carcinoma of lip
c) squamous cell carcinoma of posterior one third of tongue
d) squamous cell carcinoma of anterior two third of tongue
e) squamous cell carcinoma of floor of mouth
f) squamous cell carcinoma of buccal mucosa

28. All of these are true about mucous membrane pemphigoid except:
a. Females mainly affected and usually elderly
b. Oral mucosa often involved as the first site
c. Involvement of the eyes, may cause scaring and blindness
d. Widespread of skin involvement
e. Non of the above


29. An elevated, bright purplish red friable tumor like mass located most frequently in gingival area and consisting of granulation tissue with young fibroblasts, proliferating capillaries and inflammatory cells is:
a. Squamous cell papilloma
b. Pyogenic granuloma
c. Fibroma
d. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
e. Non of above





30. The characteristic microscopic feature of pemphigus is:
1. a cleft within the statum spinosum
2. sub epithelial clefting
3. separation of the epithelium from the underlying lamina propria
4. there is desmosme destruction

a. 1+2
b. 1+4
c. 2+3+4
d. 1+3
e. 1+3 +4
31. All of these are clinical features of acute necrotizing ulcertative gingivitis except:
a. Soreness and bleeding of the gingival
b. Necrosis of the gingival papillae
c. Halitosis
d. Bulla gingival formation
e. Non of above

32. The diagnosis of syphilis is generally based on the results of:
a. Culturing
b. Serological investigation
c. Biopsy
d. Gram-stained smear of the oral lesion
e. Non of above

33. This 53-year –old woman came to the dental clinic because of burning, painful gingival. An incisional biopsy was performed, and during the initial incision the gingival began to slough. The biopsy report indicated that the epithelium was separated from the lamina below the basal cell layer. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Pemphigus
b. Erythema multiform
c. Lupus erythromatous
d. Pemphigoid
e. Angina bullousa hemorrhagic

34. The best treatment for leukoedema is:
a. Surgical excision
b. Biopsy
c. None required
d. Laser therapy
e. Eliminate bruxism

35. All of these can be considered as principle viruses that affect the oral mucosa and perioral region except:
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. varicella zoster virus
c. group B coxackieviruses
d. parmyxoviruses
e. human papilloma viruses

36. The most common site for oral lichen planus:
a. Buccal mucosa
b. Tongue
c. Gingival
d. Lips
e. Alveolar ridge

37. Urea elevated above normal value in:
1. Dehydration
2. Liver disease
3. Renal failure
4. Cardiac failure

a. 1+2+4
b. 1+3
c. 2+3
d. 1+3+4
e. 2+3+4
f. all of above

38. All of these are true about Vitamine B12 EXCEPT:
a. Vitamin is involved in erythrocyte production
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency should be suspected if a microcytosis is detected in a full blood count and film.
c. Vitamin B12 is estimated by radioimmnoassay of serum
d. This radioimmunoassay is sometimes unreliable and it is worthwhile repeating the test if a low B12 value is obtained in conjunction with a normal MCV.
e. None of above

39. The Sickledex test is used to detect an abnormal form of:
a. Erythrocyte
b. Hemoglobin,
c. White blood test
d. Platelet
e. none of above

40. All of these considered as herpes group of viruses except:
a. Varicella zoster virus
b. Epstein - Barr virus
c. Humanpapilloma virus
d. cytomegally virus
e. None of above

41. Well-circumscribed, smooth-surfaced, dome-shaped yellowish to pink nodule commonly located on buccal mucosa. This lesion is slightly doughy upon palpation and grows slowly.
The most probable diagnosis:

a. Papilloma
b. Leukoedema
c. Lipoma
d. Neurofibromatosis
e. Ephelis



42. All of these can be considered as antifungal therapy except:
a. clotrimazle
b. fluconazloe
c. nystatine
d. flucinonide
e. None of above

43. All of these are true about the management of verrucous carcinoma except:
a. Biopsy to confirm diagnosis
b. Surgical excision after confirmation of diagnosis
c. Radiation therapy after surgical excision
d. Discontinue smokeless tobacco habit
e. None of above

44. All of these lesions associated with vesicular eruption except;
a) Herpangina
b) Herpitiform ulceration
c) Chicken pox
d) Herpes zoster
e) Hand, foot and mouth syndrome















Answer the following question:
1. 60-year old female presented to your dental clinic because she afraid of white lesion in her mouth. On examination you note a network of white lesions on both buccal mucosas, which are painless. There are no other oral lesions. On further questioning the patient reports an itchy rash on her wrists.
a. Give the most probable diagnosis of this lesion and discuss how you can confirm your diagnosis
b. Discuss the management options for this lesion.


2. Discuss the importance of immunofluorescence studies in the diagnosis of vesiculobullous disorders.

3. A 65-year-old patient presents to your dental surgery for the first time. He is edentulous patient and his lower denture is badly stained with several teeth missing. This patient has a history of heavy tobacco smoking.
He complains that he noticed a small asymptomatic ulcer on his tongue from 2 months ago, and never quite healed.
During your oral examination you noticed this isolated elevated ulcer which is 1.5 cm in diameter on the lateral surface of patient tongue.

a) What question would you ask this patient?
b) What feature of the ulcer is important to note?
c) What is the most likely differential diagnosis in this particular case?
d) How would you manage this patient?

Oral pathology exam
First exam
Answer the following questions:

1- Give examples of craniofacial anomalies and developmental syndromes associated with abnormalities in the number of teeth.

2- Describe the histopathological appearance of the following lesions:

a. Dentigerous cyst associated with impacted third molar.

b. Chronic periapical granuloma.

c. Regional odontodysplasia.

3. Describe the mechanism of formation of radicular cyst (pathogenisis).


ORAL PATHOLOGY syndrome
b. von Recklinghausen’s disease of nerves.

Answer the following question:


1. There is a wide range in the histological appearances of oral leukoplakia which reflect varying degrees of keratosis, epithelial thickness, and epithelial dysplasia.

2. 60-year old female presented to your dental clinic because she afraid of white lesion in her mouth. On examination you note a network of white lesions on both buccal mucosas, which are painless. There are no other oral lesions. On further questioning the patient reports an itchy rash on her wrists.

a. Give the most probable diagnosis of this lesion and discuss how you can confirm your diagnosis
b. Discuss the pathological appearance of this lesion.

3. Make a definition of the following syndromes or diseases:

a. Sturge-Weber

b. von Recklinghausen’s disease of nerves.

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NBDE Part 2 2002/2003 Exam

NBDE Part 2 2002/2003 Exam

---

Group I

1.The action of the Hawley appliance is mainly
a) intrusion
b) tipping
c) bodily movement 

2. A light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered 
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continous
d. indirect

3. The fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
a. 1-5ppm
b. 900-1500ppm
c. 450-700ppm
d. 4000-6000ppm

4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion

5. Which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam?
a. mesial on maxillary first molar
b. distal on maxillary first premolar
c. mesial on maxillary second premilar
d. distal on mandibular first molar

6. When do you do serial extraction?
a. for space deficiency in mandibular anterior region
b. for space deficieny in mandibular posterior region
c. for space deficiency in maxillary anterior region
d. for space deficiency in maxillary posterior region

7. On what surface of the tooth is there deposition of F
a. smooth surface
b. pits
c. fissures

8. Organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses include
a. Fusobacterium
b. Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides

9. A periodontal exam of a patient referred for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b. there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid

10. You fit a new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek biting, what would you do
a. grind buccal of lower teeth
b. gring buccal of upper teeth
c. grind lingula of lower teeth
d. grind lingula of upper teeth

11. When doing an endo treatment you hit a ledge, what are you going to do?
a. use smaller instrument and get beyond the ledge
b. fill as far as you have reamed
c. use a small round bur and remove the ledge
d. continue working gently to eliminate the ledge

12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors placed too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually

13. What composite should ideally be used for a class 5
a. microfil because it is pollished better
b. microfil because it is stronger
c. hybrid because it is polished better
d. hybrid because it is stronger 

14. What would you warn patient about who is taking birth control pills and required Penicillian
a. penicillin decrease effectivenes of birth control pill
b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of penicillian
c. they may develop allergy

15. What radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar teeth are contacting each other?
a. BW and occlusal 
b. FMS
c. pan
d. pan and ceph

16. How far should implants be placed from one another
a. 3mm
b. 4mm
c. 5mm
d. 7mm

17. In what part of the mouth are ****stases seen most frequently 
a. mandible 
b. lateral border of tongue
c. palate
d. floor of the mouth

18. What is the complication of up righting molar
a. move distally and extrudes
b. a class 3 molar relationship can develop
c. class 2 molar relationship can develop

19. When will the BULL rule be utilized with the selective grinding
a. working side
b. balance side
c. protrusive movement
d. all of the above

20. What can make porcelain crown lighter
a. value
b. chroma
c. hue

21. Which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine 
a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
c. analgesia and relief of anxiety

22. Pan showing radiolucency going inferior over the body of mandible close to the angle. Informed the patient was involved in an accident. Identify the radiolucency
a. pharyngeal airspace
b. fracture
c. artifact-retake radiograph

23. After opening the flap buccally in the maxillary premolar area, how will you suture it 
a. interrupted
b. intermittent
c. matttress

24.Fracture of a rest of a chromium cobalt denture is due to 
a. over-finish and polish
b. inadequate occlusal preparation

25. In office bleaching changes the shade through all except
a. dehydration
b. etching tooth
c. oxidation of colorant
d. surface demineralization

26. The lingual root of maxillary first molar radiographically appears mesial to the mesiobuccal root because the cone was directed from
a. mesial
b. distal
c. superior
d. inferior

27. You fit new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek bite, what will you do?
a. grinding buccal of lower teeth
b. grinding buccal of upper teeth
c. grinding lingual of lower teeth
d. grindinging lingual of upper teeth

28. Probing depth differs depending on 
a. inflammation of the tissue 
b. force used for probing
c. if probing depth decrease, it may be due to reduction of inflammation and swelling, not due to real regain of attachment

29. If during the root canal treatment, the dentist breaks the apical seating and extrude the file over the foramen
a. fill the canal with a master file of a larger number then master cone
b. increase the size of the file and re-create a new apical seal and then fill with the master cone of that size
c. try to fill in as many Gutta percha points as possible
d. use canal medication instead of filling

30. If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth 

31. After implant placement, an edentulous patient should 
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites

32. After perio surgery, the re-attachment can happen 
a. as soon as in a week
b. to the dentin or cementum

33. There are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques that subgingival plaques. The detached plaques within subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than attached plaques
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first statement is wrong, but the second statement os correct
d. both statement are wrong

34. TMD patients usually have 
a. psychosis
b. antisocial tendecy
c. Schizotypical character
d. drug abuse

35. Why is z-plasty preferred over diamond technique for frenum detachment
a. less scar contraction
b. easier in terms of technique
c. less incision needed, no suture needed

36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter

37. Palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
c. labial bow is not functional in this case

38. What happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change

39. Upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is
a. Phlebitis
b. intra-arterial injection
c. vascularbreakage

40. Which of the following materials is very hard to remove from patient's mouth 
a. alginate
b. polyether
c. polysulfide
d. silicone

41. The best and the most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel
a. home bleaching
b. microabrasion technique
c. office bleaching
d. walking bleaching

42. The following have additive action for each component when used together, except for one, what is the exception
a. Atropine+glycopyrolate (anticholinergic)
b. aspirin acetaminophen
c. penicillin tetracycline

43. patients who have nausea and vomit during N2O sedation usually
a. are allergic to N20
b. inhale too high concentration of N20
c. eat a big meal right before the proceudre

44. Ataxic epilepsy patients - what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion
c. trauma
d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication

45. Porcelain veneer - what is the most important advantage compared with porcelain venee, what is the most important advantage of resin veneer
a. esthetic
b. cost
c. tooth preservation

46. Compared with class II plaster, which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of die strength
a. better compression strength
b. better tensile strength 
c. require less water
d. higher expansion

47. Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation

48. What is the characteristic of an implant that would change bony resorption pattern
a. intaosseous integration
b. integrate with bone

49. What are the reccommended numbers of implants for complete edentous patients 
a. maxilla 1 mandibular 1
b. maxilla 3 mandibular 2
c. maxilla 6 mandibular 4
d. maxilla 8 mandibular 6

50. Apically positioned flap is almost impossible to perform on
a. maxillary buccal area
b. maxillary lingual area
c. mandibular lingual area
d. mandibular buccal area

51. In order to increase the success rate of treating local juvenile periodontitis, what should be done 
a. combine usage of systemic antibiotic
b. local antibiotic treatment
c. use of chlorhexidine

52. Which feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention

Group II

1.Contaminate sharps must be handled in such ways except for
a.The container must be labeled
b.The container has a ****l case
c.The container has to be non puncturable
d.The container must be closable.

2.Which of the condition would delays a dentist decisions of taking FMX
a.Pregnancy
b.Patient receiving radiothery next week
c.Patient had CT last week
d.Patient had FMX 6 months ago.

3.Probing depth differs depending on
a.Inflammation of the tissues.
b.Force used for probing
c.If probing depth decreases due to reduction of inflammation and swelling not due to real regain of attachment

4.Tissue conditioner is used for treating
a. Inflammatroy papillary hyperplasia
b. Epulis fissuratum
c.Traumatised mucosa
d.Rocking denture stabilization

5.If during recall patient who wear RPD the dentist finds that the indirect retainer and the rest would be lifted if he press on the edentulous area of the RPD, what should the dentist do
a. tell the patient he needs new denture
b. relining of the denture
c.occlusal adjustment

6.When should a posterior crossbite be corrected
a.asap
b. wait untill permanent dentition has fully developed
c.during late mixed dentition
d.during early mixed dentition

7.Which of the following is not the effect of epinephrine
a. Increase H.R
b. Increase BP
c.bronchoconstriction
d.vasoconstriction

8.What is the definition of total anterior facial height on Ceph
a.nasion- menton
b.A-B
c. A-menton
d. ANS- menton

9.What happens if there is premature exfoliation of mandibular primary canine
a.need space maintainer
b.shift midline to affect side
c.mandibular incisors move distally and lingually
d.decrease in arch lenght

10.What happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increase
b.decreased
c. no change

11.Asprin stops pain by 
a. stopping the unpward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b.interfere with signal intrepretation in the CNS
c. stopping the local signal production and transduction
d.stopping the signal transduction in the cortex

12.The following have additive action for eac component when used together excpet for one.what is the exception
a. atropine -glycopyrolate anticholinergic
b.penicilline- tetracycline
c.asprin -acetaminophen

13.In order to increase the success rate of treating local JP what should be done
a. combine systemic antibiotic
b.use chlorhexidine
c.local antibiotic treatment

14.Which feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention?

15.The % of specific LA which is present in the base form when injected in the tissue whose pH is 7.4 inversely proportional to the pKa of that agent
a.onset if faster, duration is longer
b.onset is slower ,duration is lolnger
c.duration same onset is slower
d.onset and duration same

16.which of the injections is most likely to have positive inspiration
a. IA 10-15%
b.akisino
c.infraorbital
d.gowgate 2%
e.mental nerve

17.what is the most definite way to distinguish amelloblastoma from OK
a.smear cytology
b.reactive light microscopy
c.reflective microscopy

18.dentist who uses 5- HEMA for clinical situations most likely exp which of the following conditions for the clinician
a.contact dermatitis
b.anaphylaxis
c.artus reaction
d.arthritis
e.delayed hypersensitivity

19.what was done wrong that the resin teeth wont stay in the resin denture base
a. wax got in between during processing
b.there is no loocking system
c.retentive holes are not big enough

20.which field of the following can be a speciality according to ADA
a.public health
b.geriatric dentistry
c.hospital dentistry
d.cosmetic dentistry

21.which kind of patients cannot be treated with B blocker as antiarrithymic medication
a. patients with angina
b.patients with HTN
c.patients with COPD
d.patients with astham


22.due to the mesial concavity of the max 1st PM prior to condensation of the amalgam the tooth is best prepared with
a. wedge only
b.matirx only
c.no wedge or matrix
d.custom made wedge and matrix

23. radiographically you see widening of PDL around all teeth .what is your early diagnosis
a.earlist sign of osteosarcoma
b. sclreoderma
c.hyperparathyroidism
d.fibroius dysplasia 

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maxillary and mandibular nerve

maxillary and mandibular nerve

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Maxillary Nerve Branches

A. Zygoticaticotemporal
B. Zygomaticofacial
C. Post. Sup. Alveolar Brs
D. Nasopalatine
E. Greater Palatine
F. Lesser Palatine
G. Mid. & Ant. Alveolar Brs
H. Infraorbital

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Mandibular Nerve Branches

A. Auriculotemporal
B. Lingual
C. Inferior Alveolar
D. N. to the Mylohyoid
E. Mental
F. Buccal

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Facial Nerve Branches-Branchiomotor

The branchiomotor component of the facial nerve controls the muscle of facial expression through five branches which are distributed in the superfical fascia of the head and neck. These branches include:
Temporal - auricular and fronto-occipitalis muscles
Zygomatic - muscles of the zygomatic arch and orbit
Buccal - muscles in the cheek and above the mouth
Mandibular - muscles in the region of the mandible
Cervical - the platysma muscle

Facial Nerve Branch-Special Sensory-Chorda Tympani
The special sensory component of the facial nerve transmits taste through the chorda tympani which leaves the lingual nerve and enters the skull through the petrotympanic fissure. The chorda tympani then joins the geniculate ganglion on the medial wall of the tympanic cavity.
Chorda Tympani

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Innervation & Blood Supply of the Teeth

1 Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V2) 
2 Superior alveolar nerve 
3 Infraorbital artery 
4 Infraorbital nerve 
5 Superior dental nerve plexus 
6 Inferior dental nerve plexus 
7 External carotid artery 
8 Inferior alveloar nerve 
9 Inferior alveolar artery 
10 Lingual nerve 
11 Maxillary artery 
12 Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V3) 
13 Trigeminal ganglion 
14 Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V1) :angry

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