1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece
lingually is to
A. Avoid buccal pulp horn
B. Avoid lingual pulp horn
C. Remove unsupported enamel
D. Conserve lingual dentine
2. For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should
A. Reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
B. Reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
C. Reduce 2mm for retention form
3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should
A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly
4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins
of amalgam restoration is true?
A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay.
5. The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed
A. Parallel to the outer wall
B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth
6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental
Nerve” block is
A. Injecting too low
B. Injecting too high
7. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation
A. SnF2
B. 1.23% APF
C. H2SiF2
D. CaSiF2
E. 8% Stannous fluoride
8. The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is
A. H2O2
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
9. The most mineralised part of dentine is
A. Peritubular dentine
10. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness
around the eyes, and oedema of the upper lip with redness and
dryness. When he went to bed he had the swelling, pain or
dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate
restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative
for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and
periapical area of rarefaction. The patient’s temperature is
normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal xrays
at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health.
The condition is
A. Acute periapical abscess
B. Angioneurotic oedema
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute maxillary sinusitis
E. Acute apical periodontitis
11. Internal resorption is
A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal
B. Usually in a response to trauma
C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal
12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see
A. Surface resorption, external resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Inflammatory resorption
D. Replacement resorption
E. A, C and D
F. All of the above
13. The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make
in 0.5mm away from pulp is
A. 20%
B. 50%
14. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is
A. A reversal line
B. Sharp curvature
C. A resting line
D. A reduction in the number of tubules
3
15. What is the correct sequence of events
A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium,
dentine formation then enamel formation.
B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel
formation, elongation of enamel epithelium.
C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast,
dentine formation then enamel formation.
16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in
dentine caries
A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative
dentine
B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation,
sclerosis.
C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine,
demineralisation.
17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of
nerve fibres
A. Afferent & sympathetic
18. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first
molar usually curve towards
A. Facial / buccal/
B. Lingual
C. Mesial
D. Distal
19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture
A. Perio abscess like appearance
B. Displacement of fragments
20. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for
indirect pulp capping
A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.
B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no
response to pulp tests you should
A. Review again later
4
B. Start endodontic treatment
C. Extraction of tooth
22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a
recently traumatised tooth
A. Obtain baseline response
B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality
23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics
A. Decalcification of dentine
B. Cleaning debris from root canal
24. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or
10mg of diazepam for sedation
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is
given one hour preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post
operatively
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil
25. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient
A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of
blood from HIV patient
B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of
blood from HIV patient
C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that
active disease is not present
26. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization
procedures; what would you recommend as the BEST method
to verify that sterilization has occurred**
A. Use spore test daily
B. Use indicator strips in each load and color change tape on each
package
C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
D. Use color change tape daily and spore test monthly
E. Use color change tape in each load and spore tests weekly
27. A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered
questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis.
5
The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental
therapy is
A. Extreme susceptibility to pain
B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
C. Recurring oral infection
D. Increased tendency to syncope
E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia
28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by
A. Bell’s palsy
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region
E. Ludwig’s angina
29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible
sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second
fracture is most likely to be present in
A. Symphysis region
B. Left body of the mandible
C. Left sub-condylar region
D. Right sub-condylar region
E. sub-condylar region
30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in
a patient being assessed for oral surgery are
A. Elevated temperature and nausea
B. Palpitations and malaise
C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea
D. Erythema and pain
E. Pallor and tremor
31. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm
in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by
aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you
consider**
A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the
socket
B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa
C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an
opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.
D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an
opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.
E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.
6
32. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following
the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best
treated by
A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal
spontaneously
B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
C. Curettage and dressing of the defect
D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.
33. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid
mass may be accompanying
A. Lympha adenopathy
B. Nodular consistency
C. Facial paralysis
D. Slow progressive enlargement
E. Xerostomia
34. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which
of the following is true**
A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the
chances of infection
B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but
will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual
nerve
C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces
post operative swelling
D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to
the wisdom tooth root
E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the
chances of infection.
35. Endogenous morphine like substance which can control pain is
known as**
A. Bradykinins
B. Peptides
C. Prostaglandins
D. Serotonins
E. Enkephalins
36. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of the
following describes this role?
7
A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin
B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels
C. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis
D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors
E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation
37. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of
four factors; which of the following is not one of these factors
A. Necrosis
B. Presence of lymphocytes
C. Collection of neutrophils
D. Accumulation of tissue fluid
E. Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes
38. Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified as an
intra-epithelial lesion**
A. Herpes simplex infections
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Herpangina
D. Lichen planus
E. Hand, foot and mouth disease
39. In regards to HIV infection, which of the following is the
earliest finding
A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate
B. Reduced haemoglobin
C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii
D. Reduction in white cells count
E. B cell lymphoma
40. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal
neuralgia**
A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early
stages of the disease
B. The pain is usually unilateral
C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated
precipitate an attack of pain
D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the
forehead
E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with
Carbamazepine
41. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests
itself in the oral cavity as
8
A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of
the tongue
B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove
in the centre of the tongue
C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas
D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper trophic fungiform
E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface
F. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure
G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue
42. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy
leukoplakia
A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the
dorsal of the tongue
B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the
lateral side of the tongue
C. Usually caused by Candida species
D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue
E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia
43. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated
A. Giant cell granuloma
B. Lipoma
C. Fibrous epulis
D. Haematoma
E. Pulp polyps
44. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by
A. Rapid growth and metastasis
B. Local cutaneous invasion
C. Inability to invade bone
D. Poor prognosis
E. Radiation resistance
F. Can not metastasise to the bone
45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the
following sites**
A. Lateral border anteriorly
B. Anterior dorsal surface
C. Posterior dorsal surface
D. Lateral border posteriorly
E. No preferred location
9
46. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours
after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an
example of
A. Type I allergic reaction
B. Nervous disorder
C. Side effect of the drug
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
E. Pyloric stenosis
47. Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists
for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous
ulcers; its mechanism of action is
A. Thermodynamic action
B. Activation of tissue enzymes
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Protein precipitation PPT
E. Neutralization
48. Which of the following adverse reaction of oral contraceptives
is the most common and the most serious
A. Hypotension
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Uterine neoplasia
D. Thromboembolism disorder
E. Decreased resistance to infection
49. A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might
show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin
inhibits**
A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation
B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation
C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets
D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network
E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood
clotting factors
50. A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the
kidney presented with radiolucent area in the left maxilla with
clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would
immediately suggest is
A. Diabetes
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Hyperparathyroidism
10
D. Osteoporosis
E. Adrenal insufficiency
51. Typical features of Down’s syndrome (Mongolism) do not
include
A. A multiple immunodeficiencies
B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease
C. Susceptibility to infections
D. Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion
E. Hepatitis B carriage in institutionalised patients
52. The patient whom you are about to treat, states that he has
Von Willbrand’s disease. Which one of the following
preoperative hematological analysis may reflect this disease
A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level
B. Bleeding time and factor IX level
C. Bleeding time and factor X level
D. Platelet count
E. Thromboplastin generation time
53. A 22 year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy,
spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva and complains of
weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows:
HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%, Monocytes=1%,
Platelets=250000, WBC=100000, Lymphocytes=9%,
Eosinophils=0%
The most likely diagnosis is
A. Myelogenous leukaemia
B. Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/
C. Thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
E. Pernicious anaemia /Vitamin B12 deficiency/
54. The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of
A. Angle of the mandible
B. C6 vertebrae
C. Jugulodigastric crossing
D. Clavicle
E. Jugulo-omohyoid crossing
55. Exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a
radiograph is NOT REDUCED by
A. The use of fast film
11
B. The addition of filtration
C. Collimation of the beam
D. The use of an open and lead lined cone
E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP
56. X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both side of a support
material. The emulsion contains particles of
A. Silver nitrate crystal
B. Metallic silver in gelatine
C. Silver bromide in gelatine
D. Silver nitrate in gelatine
E. Potassium bromide in gelatine
57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of
radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance,
the exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for
the same situation with 400mm target to film distance
A. 0.5s
B. 1.0s
C. 2.0s
D. 0.25s
E. 0.125s
58. You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the
choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With single
change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate
affects on exposure time
A. No effect
B. Half the time
C. Double
D. Quarter
E. Triple the time
59. When no radiation shield is available, the operator should
stand out of the primary x ray beam and a distance from the
patient’s head of at LEAST
A. 0.5 metres
B. 1 metre
C. 1.5 metres
D. 2 metres
E. 3 metres
60. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following
complete pulpectomy is
12
A. Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combination paste
B. Quick setting hydroxide cement
C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
D. Gutta-percha
E. Polycarboxylate cement
61. When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns
should the depth for reduction of the proximal surface be
similar to the depth of the buccal and lingual surfaces
A. Yes; reduction of all wall is similar for best retention
B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the
contact area
C. No, the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the
cervical bulge
D. Yes, all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown can
be seated
E. No, because of lateral constriction, the lingual surface needs greatest
reduction
62. 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary
permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed;
presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the
following should be considered
A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium
hydroxide
B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp
C. Pulpotomy using formocresol
D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling
E. Pulpectomy and apexification
63. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing
bottle syndrome
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canines
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors
E. Mandibular molars
64. Which of the following anomalies occurs during the initiation
and proliferation stages of tooth development
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Enamel hypoplasia
D. Oligodontia
E. Ankylosis
13
65. Which is the right sequence of the histological stages of tooth
development
A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation,
mineralization
B. Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation,
mineralization
C. Proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization
D. Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation,
mineralization
66. A health 6 year old child presents with carious maxillary
second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment
would be preferred
A. Extraction
B. Indirect pulp treatment
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy
E. Antibiotic coverage
67. To produce a stable correction of an upper labial segment in
lingual crossbite; it is essential to
A. Use fixed appliances
B. Have adequate overbite
C. Treat during growth
D. Use posterior capping
E. Increase vertical dimension
68. Which of the following are typical consequence of dental
crowding; assuming no primary teeth has been lost
prematurely
A. Overlapping of lower incisors
B. Palatal displacement of upper canines
C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars
D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26
E. Rotation of 16 and 26
69. The lamina dura seen on periapical radiograph as
A. Usual radiolucency between tooth root and surrounding bone as a thin
white line.
B. Cribriform plate of bone making the tooth socket
C. Dense crestal bone consistent with a healthy periodontal status
D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone
14
70. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of
acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis
A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP
B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes
C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes
D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga
E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia
71. In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is
true
A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility
B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic
inflammatory periodontal disease
C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been
weakened
D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested
individually for hyper mobility
E. Reliance on radiograph is essential
72. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis
(Desquamative gingivitis)
A. It is caused by hormononal imbalance
B. Is seen only at or after menopause
C. Is frequently caused by lichen planus
D. Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis
E. Is related to nutritional disturbance
73. The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently
supplemented with tetracycline because flora involved is
predominant
A. Aerobic
B. Strictly anaerobic
C. Facultative or microaerophilic
D. Resistant to other antibiotic
74. The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root
planning is by
A. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness
B. Use air for visual inspection
C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched
sound which indicates a smooth, hard surface.
D. Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease
oedema and bleeding
E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later.
15
75. Probe pressure at the sulcus of pocket should not be more
than enough to
A. Feel the top of the crestal bone
B. Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp
C. Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit
D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues
E. Limit the lateral pressure
76. A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingiva
with minimal trauma to the tissues because of
A. Has a round base
B. Is easy to sharpen
C. Has rounded cutting edges
D. Provides good tactile sensitivity
E. Has two cutting edges
77. Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surface in
periodontal surgery is to
A. Sterilise the root surface
B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast
C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface
D. Assist the biding of lamina dura
E. Prevents post operative infections
78. Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to
dental caries THE MOST EFFECTIVE is
A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation
B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and
maturation
C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following
tooth eruption
D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel
mineralization and maturation
79. When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation
containing high concentrations of fluoride; the major reaction
is
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Calcium fluoride
C. Stannous fluoride
D. Fluorapatite
16
80. Several approaches have been suggested to increase the
fixation of professionally applied topical fluoride, which of the
following statements IS INCORRECT regarding increasing the
fixation
A. Increase concentration of fluoride in solutions
B. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution
C. Increase the exposure time to topical fluoride
D. Pre-treat the enamel with 0.5% phosphoric acid
E. Use NH4F rather than NaF at a lower PH
81. Biopsy is least useful in the diagnosis of
A. Geographic tongue
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Cysts
D. Granuloma
E. Myeloma
82. In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close
to which muscles
A. Buccinator and superior constrictor
B. Medial and lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid and superior instructor
D. Temporal and lateral pterygoid
E. Temporal and medial pterygoid
83. The extraction of maxillary deciduous molar in 5 years old
child; you should use
A. Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement
B. Rotation
C. Distal pressure and movement
D. Labial-lingual movement
84. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation
and what function does it serve after it is made
A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the
incisal guidance.
B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination
of the incisal guidance.
C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the
articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the
patient.
D. To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the
condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the
condylar paths of the patient.
17
85. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of
large cavity in permanent molar tooth is
A. Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars
B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars
C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars
D. Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars
E. Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar
86. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal
height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether
A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after
treatment
B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper
retention of the crowns
C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for
adequate periodontal support
D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to
warrant the planned reconstruction
87. In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture
the study cast
A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays
B. minimize the need for articulating
C. provide only limited information about inter ridge distance, which is
best assessed clinically
D. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are not
available
88. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture with
distal extension can best be avoided by
A. Applying Stressbreakers
B. Employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension
D. Clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
E. Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of
tension
89. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular
complete denture
A. Mentalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Levator angulioris
18
E. Temporal
90. Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established.
The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator without
a face bow. You decide to increase the occlusal vertical
dimension by 4mm this will necessitate
A. Opening the articulator 4mm
B. A new centric relation to be recorded
C. A change in the condylar guide settings
D. An increase in the rest vertical dimension
91. Following extraction of the molar teeth**
A. The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible
B. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect
than the buccal
C. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch
D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose
more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one.
92. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate
complete denture therapy
A. Trauma to extraction site
B. Increased the potential of infection
C. Impossibility for anterior try in
D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge
93. For dental caries to progress in dentine
A. The dentine must contain soluble collagen
B. Enamel must contain glycoproteins
C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate
D. Diet must contain polysaccharides
E. Pulp must contain complement
94. Streptococcus mutans utilise which subtract to form dextran
Refer to Boucher Microbiology
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Amylopectin
E. Dextrans
95. At birth, some calcified dental tissues are presented
A. All deciduous teeth and all permanent incisors
19
B. All deciduous teeth and permanent central incisors
C. All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars
D. Deciduous teeth only
96.Which one of the following statement is correct
A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle
B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X
C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle
D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle
97. The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth
is
A. Mylohyoid
B. Anterior temporal
C. Posterior temporal
D. Anterior belly of digastric
98. Loss of tooth in mixed dentition affects the
A. Same quadrant
B. The relevant jaw
C. The whole mouth
D. The relevant quadrant
99. What are the points that determine the facial line in
cephalometric points, “ The angle of the convex facial line”
A. Nasion, subnasale, pogonion
B. Orbital, sella…
100. What is the main purpose of using Stress breakers
A. To distribute the load between teeth and ridges
B. To distribute the load between the clasps and the face end of the
saddle
C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their
physiologic strength
101. What is Miller’s theory about
A. Acidogenic micro-organism
B. Proteolytic
102. Tooth under occlusal trauma shows
A. Bone resorption
B. Necrosis of the pulp
20
C. Hypercementosis
D. Triangulation
E. All of the above
103. Which is more retentive form for anterior bridge
A. ¾ partial veneer crown
B. Class V inlay
C. Pinlay Veneer
D. Class III inlay with pins
104. What would not cause an airway obstruction
A. Laryngeal muscles paralysis
B. Flexion of the neck
C. Airway obstruction
D. Extension of the neck
105. As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one
of the following is true
A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar
B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces
the incidence.
C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology
D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is
mandatory
E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth
106. A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube
distally the canine moves distally too; where do you expect the
impacted canine
A. Labially impacted
B. Palatally impacted
107. A 10 year old boy presents with small greyish white lesion
surrounded by a red halos on the soft palate and tonsillar
pillars, small vesicles are found. He has fever and pain in the
ear. The MOST probable diagnosis is
A. Herpangina
108. The SNA angle on cephalogram, best signifies the
relationship of
A. Mandible to cranial base
B. Maxilla to cranial base
C. Maxilla to mandible
21
D. Mandible to porion
E. Maxilla to Frankfort plane
109. A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary
central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after
the injury. Which of the following should be considered
A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2
B. Pulpotomy and formocresol
C. Direct pulp capping
D. Pulpectomy (RCT)
110. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors
erupted, but yet only three permanent first molars are erupted.
Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the unerupted
permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the
alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molar
crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no other
radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis
and treatment plan in such situation would be**
A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation.
B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure
C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second
one to erupt into its place.
D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of
the molar
E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and
orthodontic traction.
111. Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on
many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be
a possible indicator of this
A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min
B. S. mutans concentration of 105 organism/ml
C. A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans
D. A lactobacilli concentration of 105 organism/ml
E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5
112. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Down’s
syndrome
A. Decreased neutrophil function
B. Macroglossia
C. Macrodontia
D. An increased susceptibility to periodontal disease
E. Congenitally missing teeth
.........................................................................
reponse of questions :
Q1 = A
Q2 = A
Q3 = A
Q4 = A
Q5 = A
Q6 = A
Q7 = A
Q8 = C
Q9 = A
Q10= B
Q11= B
Q12= E
Q13= B
Q14= C
Q15= A
Q16= A
Q17= A
Q18= A
Q19=A
Q20= A
Q21= A
Q22= A
Q23=A
Q24=A
Q25=B
Q26=E. Been answered C in another paper!! And on recent paper the biological
monitors has been given as a choice which is the best answer.
Q27=B, or prolonged bleeding
Q28= D
Q29=C
Q30=C
Q31=D Boucher 434
Q32=D
Q33= C
Q34=A but a lot of people did answer B While MCQs in dentistry has a similar
question Page 207 and C was a right answer but instead of will dramatically…
was may reduce…
Q35=E Enkephalins which is, Natural opiate pentapeptides isolated originally
from pig brain. Leu enkephalin YGGFL) and Met enkephalin (YGGFM) bind
particularly strongly to _ type opiate receptors.
Q36= B
Q37=C
Q38=D. In some papers they had Pemphigoid lesions as an option as well as B.
Cawson’s P202-204.
Q39=D
Q40= D. In another paper they had Sever pain for long periods which is not
characteristic of trigeminal neurologia.
Q41= C
Q42=B
Q43=A
Q44=B
Q45=D. The anterior of the tongue is the site of two thirds of all tongue cancers.
Men are affected more than women.
Q46=C
Q47=D. Boucher 194
Q48=D
Q49=A. Check www.migraine.com/treatment/proasprn.htm
Q50=C
Q51=B
Q52=A
Q53=A. Boucher 446
Q54=A
Q55=E
Q56=C
Q57=B. I1⁄I2=(D2)2/(D1)2=1/4
Q58=B
Q59= D
Q60=C
Q61=B
Q62=A, which the same as Cevek and Shallo pulpotomy
Q63=C
Q64=D
Q65=A
Q66=D
Q67=B, Both B and C have been picked in another paper
Q68=A
Q69=D
Q70=A; Cawson’s Page 83: The bacteria responsible are a complex of
spirochaetes and fusiforms
Q71=C
Q72=C, Cawson’s Page 198 & MCQs in Dentistry P113 and it caused by mucous
membrane pemphigoid
Q73=C. facultative anaerobic
Q74=E
Q75=D
Q76=D
Q77=D, Some people answered B but new research showed the binding of
Lamina Dura
Q78=B
Q79=D
Q80= either B or E Check, Pro. Messer lecture.
Q81=B
Q82=A. The needle goes above the occlusal plane; in the Buccinator; between
Temporal and Medial pterygoid; lateral to Medial pterygoid, super constrictor
and?? Sphenmand.lig……
In another paper it has been answered buccinator and superior constrictor
Q83=D
Q84=C some answered A and others C
Q85= some answered B, others C…E has been answered in other papers.
Mesio Buccal horns are the ones they get exposed easily.
Q86=A
Q87=A
Q88=C
Q89=C, Masseter Disto buccal Mylohyoid and affects the lingual flange
Q90=B, //Boucher Page 66//
Q91=B, in MCQs in Dentistry page 1 Question 2; the resorption is greatest in
anterior edentulous mandible followed by anterior edentulous maxilla opposed to
lower complete overdenture followed by anterior edentulous maxilla and least in
anterior mandible with 3/3 retained to support overdenture
Q92=C
Q93=C
Q94=C
Q95=C
Q96=A
Q97=D
Q98=C
Q99=A
Q100=C
Q101=A
Q102=E
Q103= Looks like there is a missing option for this question; ¾ seems to be the
best here, some people answered Pinlay veneer
Q104=D
Q105=C
Q106=B…SLOB
Q107=A
Q108=B
Q109=D
Q110=E, because he is 8 and orthodontic appliance is required
Q111=D
Q112=C
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